I am sorry for such a noobie question.
Continuous time (Clear part)
Suppose that we have continuous time "AWGN" noise $n(t)$ with bandwidth $W$ and power spectral density $N_0/2$, i.e. the Fourier transform $\widehat{R_n}(f)$ of the autocorrelation function is:
(1) $\widehat{R_{n}}(f)$ is $N_0/2$ for all $f \in [-W,W]$, 0 otherwise.
Now since the power of continuous noise power is defined as $E(\frac{1}{2T}lim_{T\rightarrow \infty}\int_{-T}^{T}n^2(t)dt)$, it is actually $E(n^2(0))$. In turn is the variance $\sigma^2$ of continuous time Gaussian variable n(0). Moreover, by calculating the inverse Fourier transform of Fourier transform of autocorrelation (see (1)) we have $\sigma^2=N_0W$: $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\widehat{R_n}(f)e^{2\pi ift}df=N_0W$.
Thus we obtain that continuous time noise power as
(2) $E(n(0)^2)=N_0W=\sigma^2$ .
Suppose we sample with Nyquist rate $1/2W$, i.e. at times $\frac{k}{2W}$, $k\in Z$:
Question 1 How we define the sampled noise power for sampled model then?
Question 2 What happens if not the Nyquist sampling is used?
I can naturally define the discrete noise power as the expected value of $2W\sum_{k\in{0..2W-1}}n^2(k/2W)$, since the sum is the sum of random variables. Due to linearity of expectation, it is a equal to continuous noise power $E(n(0)n(0)^*)=\sigma^2=N_0W$, which is very different for the text book value $N_0/2$ for discrete time AWGN variance.
p.s. Proakis defines the discrete time AWGN power as the integral of spectral noise density $N_0/2$ from $-1/2$ to $1/2$, so $N_0/2$ total, but the intuition behind is unclear for me.