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I have a 2D image defined on a region $\Omega$. Assume that the region can be separated into $N$ sub-regions $\Omega_i$ such that $$\forall i,j=1... N:\Omega_i \cap\Omega_j=\emptyset$$ and $$\bigcup_{n=1}^{N}\Omega_n =\Omega$$

Let $u_i(x)=1$ if $x \in \Omega_i$, otherwise $u_i(x)=0$. Then for a familiy $\{f_n:n\in 1..N\}$ of functions on $\Omega$ we have $$x \in \Omega_k \implies \sum_{i=1}^{N}f_i(x)u_i(x)=f_k(x)$$

I have a energy function that is defined as following $$E_1=\int_{\Omega} \sum_{i=1}^{N} f_i(x)dx$$

Does the below equation $E_2$ equate with above energy function $E_1$? How to prove it? $$E_2=\sum_{i=1}^{N} \int_{\Omega} f_i(x)u_i(x)dx$$

That is my prove enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ Don't you mean $\sum_{i=1}^N f(x) u_i(x) = f_i(x)$? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2015 at 14:57
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    $\begingroup$ Your prerequisites are not quite right. $\Omega_i \cup \Omega_j = \Omega$ for $i,j=1\dots N$ doesn't make a lot of sense if $N>2$. What you mean is that the full space is covered by all $\Omega$, and not by any pair. So you should write $\bigcup_{i=1}^N \Omega_i = \Omega$. Next, there is very little to prove if $N$ is finite. In that case you just use the additivity of the integral's domain and the linearity of the integral to transform one into the other. $\endgroup$
    – Jazzmaniac
    Commented Aug 27, 2015 at 9:19
  • $\begingroup$ @Jazzmaniac: Yes. That is right. However, Just assume N=3 is more common case in brain segmentation. What do you think about $E_1(x)$ and $E_2(x)$? $\endgroup$
    – Jame
    Commented Aug 27, 2015 at 12:09
  • $\begingroup$ @geometrikal: $\sum_{i=1}{^N}f(x)u_i(x)=f_i(x)$ for $x \in \Omega_i$ because $ u_i(x)=1$ for $x \in \Omega_i$, and $u_i(x)=0$ for otherwise. Hence, $\sum_{i=1}{^N}f(x)u_i(x)=f_1(x)u_1(x)+...f_i(x)u_i(x)+f_N(x) u_N(x)= f_i(x) u_i(x)=f_i(x)$ $\endgroup$
    – Jame
    Commented Aug 27, 2015 at 12:12
  • $\begingroup$ What you just wrote for @geometrikal is not accurate. He's totally right saying that $\sum_{i=1}^N f_i(x)u_i(x)$ cannot result in $f_i(x)$, because all information about the index $i$ is eliminated by the sum on the lhs. Also regarding your last reply to me, I already said that there's not much to prove for finite $N$, meaning that the identity is "nearly obvious". If you explain what you have trouble with I will help you. But currently it looks like you just need to brush up your math notation and integral properties. $\endgroup$
    – Jazzmaniac
    Commented Aug 27, 2015 at 13:50

1 Answer 1

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Starting from your $E_2$ and exchanging the finite sum with the integral we get this:

$$E_2=\sum_{i=1}^N \int_\Omega f_i(x) u_i(x) dx = \int_\Omega \sum_{i=1}^N f_i(x) u_i(x) dx$$

Next we can use the disjoint cover $\{\Omega_i\}$ of $\Omega$ to split up the integral:

$$E_2 = \sum_{k=1}^N \int_{\Omega_k} \sum_{i=1}^N f_i(x) u_i(x) dx$$

The $x$ in the integral are now from $\Omega_k$ and we can apply your identity for the sum over $f_i(x) u_i(x)$:

$$E_2 = \sum_{k=1}^N \int_{\Omega_k} f_k(x) dx$$

This is almost your $E_1$, but not quite. We cannot exchange the integral with the sum because the integral depends on the summation index. Extending the integration region to $\Omega$ is also not possible without reintroducing a selection function. So your $E_1$ and $E_2$ are not equal. The closest thing to $E_1$ is what I have derived above.

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  • $\begingroup$ I just ask you a small question: Do you look at two my references papers? From your comment, it shown that both of them are wrong, Right? $\endgroup$
    – Jame
    Commented Aug 28, 2015 at 12:41
  • $\begingroup$ @user8430, I have not really looked much into the papers you linked and so I cannot comment regarding their correctness. I can only say that the version you asked for is not correct. $\endgroup$
    – Jazzmaniac
    Commented Aug 28, 2015 at 15:07

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