In this answer to this question, we get a hint that there is a significance to the imaginary part of the auto-correlation function, and that we should try to calculate the correlation with the real and imaginary parts of the signals. But I would like to get some clarity on how to interpret that imaginary part, either for the cross- or auto-correlation.
Let's start from the definition of the cross-correlation $$ R = \sum_{n} f_{n}\,\overline{g_{n}} = \sum_{n} |f_n\,g_n|\exp[j(\theta_n-\phi_n)] = \sum_{n} (a_{n}\,c_{n}+b_{n}\,d_{n})+j(b_{n}\,c_{n}-a_{n}\,d_{n}) $$ for the two signal sequences $f_{n}=|f_n|\exp(j\theta_n)=a_{n}+jb_{n}$ and $g_{n}=|g_n|\exp(j\phi_n)=c_{n}+jd_{n}$, and where $\overline{g_{n}}$ denotes the complex conjugate of $g_{n}$.
From the complex-phase representation, it seems like the imaginary part of $R$ represents the correlation of the signals $90^{\circ}$ out of phase.
- Is there any other interpretation?
- Is there any other interpretation for the auto-correlation $R(\ell) = \sum_{n} f_{n}\,\overline{f_{n+\ell}}$?