If I understand correctly the definition of cross-correlation, the complex conjugate is not applied to the same argument depending on whether we're working with deterministic signals or with stochastic processes.
For deterministic signals, here's the the Wikipedia page, citing Rabiner and Schafer:
$${\displaystyle (f\star g)[n]\ \triangleq \sum _{m=-\infty }^{\infty }{\overline {f[m]}}g[m+n]}$$
For random vectors, here's another section of the same Wikipedia page, citing Gubner 2006:
$${\displaystyle \operatorname {R} _{\mathbf {Z} \mathbf {W} }\triangleq \ \operatorname {E} [\mathbf {Z} \mathbf {W} ^{\rm {H}}]}$$
These two definitions are inconsistent with each other. I feel like I would prefer the latter because it is consistent with sesquilinear forms, which are linear in their first argument and semilinear in their second argument.
Here are some DSP.SE answers in which the "conjugate first argument" convention is being used:
- https://dsp.stackexchange.com/a/55087/74603
- Correlation : Cross correlation why we need to multiply the samples
- Auto-correlation of the sum of two generic signals
- Efficient way to calculate $n$ first elements of cross-correlation using FFT (in Fourier domain)
Why has the DSP community adopted another convention than the statistical and mathematical communities? Is it because we prefer to apply both conjugation and time reversal to the same argument before convolving via FFT?
[EDIT: my question is different from this question which asked about the sign of temporal lag when cross-correlating real signals. The OP suggested to replace $(f\star g)[n]$ by $(f\star g)[-n]$. I am not suggesting that at all. What i am suggesting is to replace $(f\star g)[n]$ by its complex conjugate.]