1
$\begingroup$

I am reading a text on discrete signal processing, which states that the frequency response of a signal can be obtained by plugging the value $e^{jω}$ into the z-domain transfer function $H(z)$. In other words:

$H_{IIR}(ω) = H(z)|_{z=e^{jω}}$

In the example given in the text, it is given that:

$H(z) = (\frac{1}{1 - \frac{1}{5}z^{-1}}) (\frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{2}z^{-1}})$

Next, the text presents the following equation for the magnitude of the frequency response when $ω = \frac{\pi}{2T}$:

$|H_{IIR}(\frac{\pi}{2T})| = \frac{|j|}{|j - \frac{1}{5}||j + \frac{1}{2}|} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\frac{1}{25} + 1}\sqrt{\frac{1}{4} + 1}} = \frac{\sqrt{130}}{13}$

I don't understand how the author derived the above equation. That is, what kind of wizardry leads to the following equations?

$|H_{IIR}(\frac{\pi}{2T})| = |(\frac{1}{1 - \frac{1}{5}e^{-j\frac{\pi}{2T}}}) (\frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{2}e^{-j\frac{\pi}{2T}}})| = \frac{|j|}{|j - \frac{1}{5}||j + \frac{1}{2}|} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\frac{1}{25} + 1}\sqrt{\frac{1}{4} + 1}}$

Does it have something to do with magnitude and a special identity regarding the constant $e$?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

It's derived using Euler's equation http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler's_formula. You start with $$H(z) = (\frac{1}{1 - \frac{1}{5}z^{-1}}) (\frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{2}z^{-1}})$$

Then plug in $e^{-jwT}$ for $z^{-1}$ and you get

$$H(z) = (\frac{1}{1 - \frac{1}{5}e^{-j\frac{\pi }{2}}}) (\frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{2}e^{-j\frac{\pi }{2}}})$$

Now according to Euler we simply have $e^{-j\frac{\pi }{2}} = -j$ so the whole thing simplifies to

$$H(z) = (\frac{1}{1 - \frac{1}{5}\cdot (-j)}) (\frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{2}\cdot (-j)})$$.

Utilizing $(-j) \cdot j = 1$ we can multiple each part of the fraction with j/j and get $$H(z) = (\frac{j}{j - \frac{1}{5}}) (\frac{j}{j + \frac{1}{2}})$$

Then we can take the magnitude as

$$\left | H(z) \right | = \frac{\left | j^{2} \right |}{\left | j-\frac{1}{5} \right |\cdot \left | j+\frac{1}{2} \right |}$$

This isn't exactly the same formula that you have given but since magnitude j and j^2 are the same, the final result comes out to be the same.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The text I'm using says to plug in $e^{jω}$, not $e^{jωT}$. Your explanation makes a lot of sense, but what's the intuition for using $e^{jωT}$? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 26, 2013 at 16:19

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.