# Proving that the IDTFT is the inverse of the DTFT?

The DTFT is given by:

$$X(e^{j\omega}) = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}x[n]e^{-j\omega n}$$

The IDTFT is given by:

$$x[n]=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi}X(e^{j\omega})e^{j\omega n}d\omega$$

I have been able to show by substitution of the DTFT into the IDTFT that the transform and a subsequent inverse transform return $$x[n]$$:

\begin{align} x[n]&=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi}X(e^{j\omega})e^{j\omega n}d\omega\\ &=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi} \left( \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}x[k]e^{-j\omega k} \right)e^{j\omega n}d\omega\\ \end{align}

Swap the order of integration and summation:

$$x[n]=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{2\pi}x[k]e^{j\omega (n-k)}d\omega$$

Argue that given $$e^{j\omega (n-k)}$$ is an odd function, it will only evaluate to anything other than 0 when $$k=n$$:

\begin{align} x[n]&=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{2\pi}x[k]e^{j\omega (n-k)} d\omega \ \delta[n-k]\\ &=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi}x[n]d\omega \\ &=\frac{2\pi}{2\pi}x[n]\\ \end{align}

However, I have been unable to show the dual case: that the inverse transform (IDTFT) substituted into the forward transform (DTFT) gives $$X(e^{j\omega})$$. How can we show this?

• i hope you don't mind that i "cleaned" some of the notational convention a little. i added a Kroenecker delta $\delta[n-k]$ to it. Feb 12, 2019 at 0:49
• Thanks, if it makes it clearer then that’s a good thing! Feb 12, 2019 at 1:13
• Note that all integrals should be over one period, not over two. I've changed the formulas accordingly. Feb 12, 2019 at 8:07
• oh yeah, that's right. Feb 12, 2019 at 10:46

\begin{align}X(e^{j\omega})&=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}x[n]e^{-jn\omega}\\&=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\left[\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi}X(e^{j\Omega})e^{jn\Omega}d\Omega\right]\;e^{-jn\omega}\\&=\int_{0}^{2\pi}X(e^{j\Omega})\left[\frac{1}{2\pi}\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{jn(\Omega-\omega)}\right]d\Omega\\&=\int_{0}^{2\pi}X(e^{j\Omega})\delta(\Omega-\omega)d\Omega\\&=X(e^{j\omega})\end{align}
$$\delta(\omega)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{jn\omega}$$
• This is perfect! I think my own confusion arose when using the same $\omega$ inside and outside the integral so became confused... using the different notations cleared up the misunderstanding. Feb 12, 2019 at 12:31