I would like to ask a theoretical question concerning the Dirac function. The Fourier Transform of the Dirac function is the value 1 (DC) for every frequency. If we consider the Sampling Theorem, we have to find a maximum frequency in the signal $ \ f_{max} $, so that we can sample with $ \ f_s \ge \ 2f_{max}$. But as we can see from its Fourier Transform, the Dirac function contains every frequency, so we cannot find an appropriate $ f_s $ . My question is, from a theoretical point of view, can the Dirac function be sampled? 

Edit: Thank you for your helpful answers guys!