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I am reading wireless research papers and found that mostly the wireless channel is considered to be Zero mean circularly symmetric Complex Gaussian (ZMCSCG) with variance 1 or 2 or 5 or 10 etc.

My query is why generally these values for channel variance are considered.

Any help in this regard will be highly appreciated.

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  • $\begingroup$ that mostly the wireless channel is considered to be Rayleigh distributed; no, that's explicitly a Rayleigh channel. You might be looking at papers from the same field withing wireless communications, where that is a common channel. Under different circumstances, we consider very different channels! $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 29, 2022 at 10:47
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you Marcus sir for your response. I agree with you sir that "under different circumstances, we consider very different channels!". I would like to know the reason about "when we consider Zero mean circularly symmetric Complex Gaussian (ZMCSCG) channel then why in most papers variance of this channel is chosen to be 1 or 2 or 5 etc? Why not other values? " $\endgroup$
    – chaaru
    Commented Jun 29, 2022 at 13:28
  • $\begingroup$ I've never seen any of these choices; they're not very typical. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 29, 2022 at 13:40
  • $\begingroup$ In general, something like that can only result from a physical model or measurements, and if you actually use anything but a symbolic variance $\sigma^2$, you need, as the paper using it, to argue why. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 29, 2022 at 13:41
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    $\begingroup$ The questions you're asking are all different. Please focus on what you're actually interested in asking. Please edit your question and update it with this information, and request the question to be re-opened. $\endgroup$
    – Peter K.
    Commented Jun 29, 2022 at 13:41

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