In 1 they say that the energy of $\psi_\lambda(t)$ is concentrated in an interval of length $2\pi Q/\lambda$. I understand the inverse proportionality between the frequency band $\lambda/Q$ and the time support but I'm missing where that formula is coming from. I thought that the precise relation depends on the specific filter/wavelet but I might be missing something.
Thanks
If I consider Morlet
$\theta(t) = \frac{e^{\frac{-t^2}{2\sigma_t^2}}}{\sigma_t\sqrt{2\pi}}$
and
$\hat\theta(\omega) = e^{-\frac{\sigma_t^2 \omega^2}{2}} = e^{-\frac{ \omega^2}{2 \sigma^2_\omega}}$
then: $\sigma_t\sigma_\omega = 1$
If $\sigma_\omega$ is $\lambda/Q$, why $\sigma_t$ is $2\pi Q/\lambda$ instead of simply $Q/\lambda$. Where the $2\pi$ is coming from?