So, I am trying to solve this question.
Consider the signal, $$x=\cos\left(\left(\dfrac{2\pi}{3} \right)n\right)$$
The signal is downsampled by a factor of two. Indicate the frequency of the resulting output, normalized by $2\pi$
(E.g., if the frequency is $\dfrac{\pi}{2}$, write $\dfrac{1}{4}$)
So, what I understood is,
from the signal, $f = \dfrac{1}{N} \implies \dfrac{1}{3}$ or $\dfrac{2\pi}{3}$ if we consider angular frequency.
So after downsampling, $$f_d = \dfrac{f}{M} = \frac{1}{3}\cdot \frac{1}{2} \implies \frac{1}{6}$$.
or, if taking $\dfrac{2\pi}{3}$ and downsampling by factor $2$ then, $\dfrac{2\pi}{3}\cdot\dfrac{1}{2} = \dfrac{\pi}{3}$ or $\dfrac{1}{6}$
But the answer is wrong. How should I solve it?