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Is it possible to get a 2D Fourier Transform by first taking 1D Fourier transform in first dimension and then performing another 1D Fourier Transform in the other dimension? If yes, can you explain

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    $\begingroup$ yes. What is there to explain? Can you be more specific? Have you looked at the formula? It's very straightforward when reading the formula. $\endgroup$ – Marcus Müller Aug 9 '20 at 17:00
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https://www.ques10.com/p/5768/state-and-prove-the-property-of-kernel-separatin-1/

It is possible due to the separability property of Fourier Transform

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