I'm reading Lectures on the Fourier Transform and Its Applications and I'm going to prove shift theorem for the inverse Fourier transform using duality. According to the mentioned source, the duality equations are $$\mathcal{F}f = (\mathcal{F}^{-1}f)^{-} \tag{1}$$ $$\mathcal{F}f^- = \mathcal{F}^{-1}f \tag{2} $$ $$ \mathcal{F}\mathcal{F}f = f^{-} \tag{3}$$ Where $$(\mathcal{F}f)(s) = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-2\pi i st}f(t)dt$$ $$(\mathcal{F}^{-1}f)(t) = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{+2\pi i st}f(s)ds$$ And $$f^{-}(t) = f(-t)$$ Using shift theorem which says $$f(t) \leftrightarrow F(s) \implies f(t-b) \leftrightarrow e^{-2\pi isb}F(s) \tag{4}$$ And duality equations I want to show $$F(s) \leftrightarrow f(t) \implies F(s-b) \leftrightarrow e^{2\pi itb}f(t) \tag{5}$$ First of all $\text{(5)}$ seems ambiguous to me but I guess it's $$\mathcal{F}\{ e^{2\pi itb}f(t)\} = F(s - b) \tag{6}$$ It's straightforward to show that directly $$\mathcal{F}\{ e^{2\pi itb}f(t)\} = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-2\pi i st}e^{2\pi itb}f(t)dt = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-2\pi it(s-b)}f(t)dt = F(s-b)$$ But I don't know how to combine duality equations and shift theorem to prove $\text{(5)}$. There is another version of duality which can be found for example here. It says $$x(t) \leftrightarrow X(s) \implies X(t) \leftrightarrow x(-s) \tag{7}$$ Is $\text{(7)}$ same as duality equations i.e. equations $\text{(1)}, \text{(2)}$ and $\text{(3)}$ or they are different from each other?
Edit: Equation $\text{(6)}$ is called modulation theorem. Also it seems in $\text{(5)}$ by $F$ we mean $\mathcal{F}^{-1} f$. So it's completely different from $\text{(6)}$. I'm really confused by these similar equations.
Edit2: I realized that the other version of duality is same as $\text{(3)}$. I mean the equations $\text{(3)}$ and $\text{(7)}$ are identical.