From my understanding, if you have a sample $x_{t_1},\dots,x_{t_n}$ of $X_{t_1},\dots,X_{t_n}$ which are iid $N(0,1)$, then $x_{t_1},\dots,x_{t_n}$ is a sample path of Gaussian white noise.
However, it is stated that the correlation function $c(s,t)$ of white noise is $\delta(s-t)$ where $\delta$ is the Dirac delta function. I understand that if $s\neq t$ then $c(s,t) = 0$. However, if $s=t$, you want $c(s-t)=1$. Why isn't the kronecker delta function used instead?