# Does 46 dB gain of a filter for a frequency imply 200 times more amplitude?

Consider we have a IIR filter or order 2 and it has gain of say 46.02 dB for frequency $$f_0$$. Now if we apply a time domain signal of frequency $$f_0$$ to the filter for a long time, can we expect to get 200 times higher amplitude in the output of the filter comapre to the input of the filter? The 46.02 db and 200 comes from the fact that $$20\log_{10}(200)= 46.0206$$.