A couple of confusions have been occurred. The Signal I'm considering is f(t) = sin(t)*u(t)
Fourier Transform of it can be derived. $-i \pi (\delta (\omega -1)-\delta (\omega +1))$
According to my mathematica code, the ROC of LaplaceTransformation didn't have the j$\omega$ axis in it's region of convergence.( Re{s}>0 )
So it's not stable. (Makes sense. sin(t) is not absolutely summable) https://www.wolframcloud.com/objects/ramithuh/Published/misc_sin_laplace.nb
- So, can a Fourier Transform exist even if the j$\omega$ axis is not in the Region of Convergence in it's Laplace Transform?
Things got worse when I considered f(t) = sin(t). It's Laplace Transform Integral didn't converge. So considering sin(t)*u(t) and sin(t)*u(-t) separately, I got two different ROC which doesn't have an overlap. Re{s} > 0 and Re{s} < 0. So it means that the Laplace transform of Sin(t) doesn't exist right? Initially what i thought is Laplace Transform can cover all the signals which FourierTransform covers. Turns out it's not the case?
Please point out in which step of my reasoning is wrong...
Thanks a bunch! :)
Update: Thank you for pointing out my mistake. :D $ \mathcal{F(sin(t)*u(t))} = -\frac{1}{2} i \pi \delta (\omega -1)+\frac{1}{2} i \pi \delta (\omega +1)-\frac{1}{2 (\omega -1)}+\frac{1}{2 (\omega +1)}$