I have one doubt according to modulation of a real signal.

there are so many examples where the real signal was modulated with frequency bigger then 0.

Why the signal could not be putted in f=0?

is there connection with a sending power? ( Antenna send bandpass signal $\rightarrow$ signal is matched $\rightarrow$antenna send low P $\rightarrow$power will be reflected, Tx get P again)

  • $\begingroup$ Hi Lena! Modulation with frequency 0 is in fact no modulation... And yes electromagnetic concerns apply for such a case. $\endgroup$ – Fat32 Aug 8 '18 at 10:12

It all depends on the transmission medium (the so-called communication channel). Some media do not tolerate components at DC (i.e., zero frequency) or near DC. A typical channel where a carrier frequency greater than zero is required is the radio channel.

| improve this answer | |

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.