This question stems from a point of confusion that I still have about the causality, linearity, and time-invariance in LCCDEs. I wanted to use the capacitor as an example.
Consider a capacitor with capacitance $C$. Taking the current $i(t)$ to be the input to the system and the voltage $v(t)$ to be the output we have $$i(t) = C \frac{\mathrm{d} v(t)}{\mathrm{d}t}$$
This differential equation can be solved to obtain $$v(t) = v(t_0) + \frac{1}{C} \int_{t_0}^{t} i(\tau) \mathrm{d} \tau$$
My first question is: isn't this mathematically valid for all $t$? In other words, does this give us the response for all $t$ or is it only valid for $t > t_0$? If it is valid for all $t$, including the $t < t_0$ case, doesn't this make the system non-causal since it anticipates future input and output values? Are we allowed to integrate backwards in time?
My second question relates to the assertion that a for the LCCDE to describe a linear system, the initial conditions must be zero. Suppose $t_0 = 0$ such that $$v(t) = v(0) + \frac{1}{C} \int_{0}^{t} i(\tau) \mathrm{d} \tau$$
With $v(0) = 0$ the system is linear. But the choice of $t_0 = 0$ is arbitrary, since for example $$v(t) = v(0) + \frac{1}{C} \int_{0}^{t} i(\tau) \mathrm{d} \tau = v(2) + \frac{1}{C} \int_{2}^{t} i(\tau) \mathrm{d} \tau$$
Why shouldn't we require that $v(2) = 0$ as well for that matter? What am I missing here? Thank you in advance.