I am trying to make the relation between linear modulation and nonlinear one by using orthonormal expansion. The purpose is to understand what is orthonormal set in each case and to understand the operation of projection.
Linear modulation
In digital linear modulation, the baseband signal can be written as
$$x(t) = \sum_n a_n p(t-nT)$$ where $a_n$ is data, $\lbrace p_n(t) = p(t-nT)\textrm{, }n\in \mathbb{Z}\rbrace$ is orthonormal set, i.e. $<p_n(t),p_m(t)> = \delta_{m-n}$ with $<x(t),y(t)> = \int x(t)y^*(t)dt$ is inner product defined for the signal space we are working on. To get $a_n$ back, we need project $x(t)$ to $p_n(t)$.
Use matched filter $q(t) = p^*(-t)$ thus $q(t-\tau) = p^*(\tau - t)$.
by defining $g(t) = p(t) \star p^*(-t)$ where $\star$ is convolution. $g(t=0) = 1$ and $g(t=nT) = 0$ because $\delta_{m-n} = <p_n(t),p_m(t)> = g((m-n)T)$.
\begin{align} y(t) &= x(t) \star p^*(-t)\\ &= \sum_n a_n p(t-nT)\star p^*(-t)\\ &= \sum_n a_ng(t-nT)\\ \implies y(t=mT) &= \sum_n a_ng((m-n)T) = a_m \end{align}
If we have white noise $n(t)$ : $y(t) = x(t) + n(t)$. The noise is processed as
\begin{align} z(t) &= n(t) \star q(t)\\ &= \int n(\tau)q(t-\tau) d\tau\\ &= \int n(\tau) p^*(\tau -t) d\tau\\ \implies z(t=mT) &= \int n(\tau) p^*(\tau - mT) d\tau\\ &= <n(t), p(t-mT)> \end{align}
Then we can say that for a given $y(t)$, each processing $m$ at the receiver which ends with sampling at $t=mT$, the noise process is projected to the vector $p_m(t)$ creating $z_m$ and the data part is projected to the same vector creating $a_m$. $\lbrace p_m(t) = p(t-mT)\textrm{, }m\in \mathbb{Z}\rbrace$ is orthonormal set, thus $z_m$ are uncorrelated, with Gaussian assumption, $z_m$ are independent.
This is famous process in classical technical books. Two conclusions I get
The set of orthonormal vectors $\lbrace p_m(t) = p(t-mT)\textrm{, }m\in \mathbb{Z}\rbrace$ has infinite number of elements as $m \in \mathbb{Z}$.
The orthonormal vectors $p_m(t)$ can be no-time-limited and the orthogonal property holds on the entier time support.
Non-linear modulation
Let's take a binary FSK modulation as example. $M$ basis functions, $k \in \mathbb{S} = \lbrace 1, ..., M \rbrace$:
$$\phi_k(t) = \begin{cases}\sqrt{\frac 2T}\sin\left(\frac{k\pi t}{T}\right)& \text{for}\quad 0 \leq t \leq T\\0 &\text{otherwise}\end{cases}$$
I write the waveform as $x(t) = \sum_n \gamma_n(t-nT)$ where $\gamma_n(t) = \phi_k(t) \textrm{ if } a_n = k$.
Questions
Question 1 : At the receiver, for the $n^\rm{th}$ symbol, we try projecting to $M$ functions $\phi_k(t-nT)$. If $k=k_0$ gives the largest power, we decode $a_n = k_0$. Is $\lbrace \phi_k(t-nT) \textrm{, } n \in \mathbb{Z}\textrm{, } k \in \mathbb{S}\rbrace$ the orthonormal set as $<\phi_k(t-nT),\phi_l(t-mT)> = \delta_{(m-n)\times(k-l)}$ ?
I mean I expect something equivalent to the two properties (infinite number of element and basis functions are not time-limited) of orthonormal set in the linear modulation case.
Question 2 : is it correct if I say the noise samples are uncorrelated because the projection are $<n(t),\phi_k(t-nT)>$ and $<n(t),\phi_l(t-mT)>$ and $<\phi_k(t-nT),\phi_l(t-mT)> = \delta_{(m-n)\times(k-l)}$ ?
Question 3 : The $M$ basis functions are interpreted as constellation of $M$ points. Is there any analogy with the linear modulation case ? If we consider M-QAM, we have also a constellation of $M$ complex points but if I write $a_n = a_{rn} + ja_{in}$, the two functions $p(t-nT)$ and $jp(t-nT) = e^{j\pi/2}p(t-nT)$ are not orthogonal.