I have a digital sensor that can output at two frequencies (250Hz, 1000Hz), but with different RMS AWGN noise (.35 units RMS, .5 units RMS respectively). The signal of interest has a single frequency <125Hz (i.e. Nyquist is satisfied at either sampling mode) of which I am trying to determine the amplitude, and the window function has fixed time duration (i.e. 4x more samples for the 1000Hz mode). Which sample rate/RMS noise mode yields better SNR?
There are 2 relevant phenomena I am aware of:
Oversampling can reduce quantization noise if much of the resulting spectrum increase is bandpassed (See What are advantages of having higher sampling rate of a signal?)
For a fixed RMS AWGN noise, a higher frequency would mean a lower PSD at all frequencies, and thus lower noise power at the frequency of interest as well.
Are there other considerations I'm missing?
I would guess that the 4x increase in sampling rate for only a 43% increase in RMS noise would give better SNR, but I am not sure how to quantify this.
Edit: To add further clarification, assume that the samples just 'show up' in my DSP, and I have no means to provide feedback to the ADC/quantizer of the sensor. (This is because the sensor measures a wireless signal, which I'm not sure how to properly simulate locally.) Also, even though quantization noise may be 'non-white' since the signal of interest is periodic and low in amplitude with respect to the quantization intervals, let's assume it is white for simplicity. I am then simply asking for the equation that relates sampling rate and RMS noise to SNR.
I believe AWGN noise difference can be accounted for as: $SNR_{1000Hz} = (\frac{.35}{.5})^2(\frac{1000}{250})SNR_{250Hz}$, which implies that the SNR of the 1000Hz mode is 1.96x or $10 log_{10}(1.96) \approx 2.92$dB better. This is because the variance of a rectangular-windowed AWGN signal is $\frac{noise^2_{RMS}}{n}$ (not proven here).
It still remains to account for quantization noise difference (if any).