Prove: $$ \left. \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{d\delta(t)}{dt}\phi(t)dt=\frac{-d\phi(t)}{dt}\right|_{t=0} $$
$\delta(t)$ is impulse signal and other one is any general signal.
- Can anybody do the proof for me?
- Or at-least how to proceed further?
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Sign up to join this communityProve: $$ \left. \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{d\delta(t)}{dt}\phi(t)dt=\frac{-d\phi(t)}{dt}\right|_{t=0} $$
$\delta(t)$ is impulse signal and other one is any general signal.
For any pair of functions $u(t)$ and $v(t)$ we have that
$$\frac{d}{dt}(u(t)v(t))=v(t)\frac{du(t)}{dt}+u(t)\frac{dv(t)}{dt}$$
If we integrate on both sides of the equation we get
$$\int\frac{d}{dt}(u(t)v(t)) \ dt=\int v(t)\frac{du(t)}{dt} \ dt+\int u(t)\frac{dv(t)}{dt} \ dt$$
In this case, $u(t)=\delta(t)$ and $v(t)=\phi(t)$, so
$$\int\frac{d}{dt}(\delta(t)\phi(t)) \ dt=\int \phi(t)\frac{d\delta(t)}{dt} \ dt+\int \delta(t)\frac{d\phi(t)}{dt} \ dt$$
The left side of the equation can be solved easily as
$$\int\frac{d}{dt}(\delta(t)\phi(t)) \ dt = \frac{d}{dt}\int\delta(t)\phi(t) \ dt=\frac{d}{dt}\phi(0)=0$$
as $\phi(0)$ is a constant. We also know that the delta function has the following property
$$\int \delta(t)\frac{d\phi(t)}{dt} \ dt = \left.\frac{d\phi(t)}{dt}\right|_{t=0}$$
So going back to the first equation and replacing with these results:
$$0=\int \phi(t)\frac{d\delta(t)}{dt} \ dt+\left.\frac{d\phi(t)}{dt}\right|_{t=0}$$
And that's the proof.