For plotting a Power Spectral Density graph based on FFT results, I had used two different approaches, but they produced very different results, and it'd be great if anyone knows why.
Note: From this point on, $N$ is assumed to be the total number of data samples, $f_s$ is assumed to be the sampling frequency.
APPROACH #1:
(from here: www.mathworks.com/help/signal/ref/periodogram.html ) $$PSD(f) = \frac{\Delta t}{N} \left| \sum_{n = 0}^{n = N-1} x_n e^{-i2 \pi fn}\right|^2$$
of which I assume the $\Delta t$ to be the same as $1/f_s$, with it being multipled by 2 for most cases (one sided periodogram). So the idea was implemented as: $$PSD(f) \cong \frac{2}{f_s N} \left| FFT(x_n) \right|^2 $$
Note: As per one of the responses, APPROACH #1 would've been more accurately interpreted as
$$PSD(f) \cong \frac{1}{f_s} \left| FFT(x_n) \right|^2 $$
APPROACH #2:
(from here: http://www.bitweenie.com/listings/power-spectral-density-matlab/) $$PSD(f) = 20 \log_{10} \left( \frac{|FFT(x_n)|}{\sqrt{N f_s}}\right) + 30$$
This approach was implemented with no interpretative modifications.
RESULTS:
Using approach #1, my results looked like a typical FFT, while approach #2 produced the expected log-scale result.
QUESTION:
However, the approach #1 from MATLAB seems like the more commonly-accepted way to do the periodogram PSD. Is there a fault somewhere in the interpretation of this approach to cause the discrepancy in results?