I've been reading some papers in signal proccesing and I'm very confused about the issue in the title of my question. Consider a continuous function of time $t$, $f(t)$, that I sample at uneven times $t_k$, where $k=1,2,...,N$. To me, it makes sense that the sampled function is: $$f_s(t)=\sum_{k=1}^N\delta_{t,t_k}f(t),\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (1)$$ where $\delta_{t,t_k}$ is Kronecker's delta (equals $1$ when $t=t_k$, zero elsewhere). However, in this paper, the author defines the sampled signal as: $$f_s(t)=\frac{1}{N}\sum_{k=1}^{N}f(t)\delta(t-t_k),\ \ \ (2)$$ where $\delta(t-t_k)$ is Dirac's delta function and I really don't get why the $1/N$ appears here (the author claims that the sampling function is actually a weighted sum of delta functions $$s(t)=C\frac{\sum_{k=1}^{N}w_k\delta(t-t_k)}{\sum_{k=1}^{N}w_k},$$ and here he choose $C=w_k=1$. I really didn't understand why). This last statement doesn't make much sense to me: the sampled signal would have infinite amplitude at $t=t_k$!
Despite of all this, it is much easier to define the Fourier Transform of $f_s(t)$ in the second case (equation $(2)$), because it is just the convolution of the window function (the FT of the Dirac comb) and the FT of the continuous signal $f(t)$, while on equation $(1)$ the FT is a bit more complicated because we have an integer function (Kronecker's delta) multiplied by a continuous function ($f(t)$). Any highlights on this?