I have read that $ce^{-\frac{\phi_i-\phi_j}{\rho}}$ is a harmonic function of the form $e^{-in\phi_i}$, and therefore it's eigenvalues are one of the Fourier components of $(|\phi_i-\phi_j|)$.

My questions are:

  1. How come $ce^{-\frac{\phi_i-\phi_j}{\rho}}$ has the form of $e^{-in\phi_i}$ if it is a real function?
  2. How do I calculate the eigenvalues of such a function, or, if it is a difficult calculation, is there a known theorem(s) I can base this result on?

I am not an expert in harmonic analysis, but I would like to know more about this subject (without getting into too much details). I need it to my research in neurosciences.

Here is a link to the article I am reffering to: Population coding


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1 Answer 1

  1. The included document does not say $ce^{-\frac{\phi_i-\phi_j}{\rho}}$ has the form of $e^{-in\phi_i}$. The included document uses $C$ for three completely different things:
    • $C_{ij}$ is the correlations between $i$ and $j$ items.
    • $C(\phi_i-\phi_j)$ a component of that correlation, dependent on the angles between the two items $i$ and $j$.
    • $C_n$ the eigenvalues of the covariance matrix made up of the $C_{ij}$.

The term $e^{-in\phi_i}$ is a component of $C_n$ the eigenvalues / Fourier components expression in (31).

  1. The idea would be to form the matrix $C_{ij}$ and then take the eigensystem decomposition of that matrix.
  • $\begingroup$ I see.. but, how does he know that $e^{-in\phi_i}$ is a component of $C_n$? Thank you $\endgroup$
    – user135172
    Jan 13, 2016 at 6:56

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