-1
$\begingroup$

In the given solution energy is given as

$$E=\dfrac{A^2}{2}\int_{-0.5T}^{0.5T}1+\cos\left(\dfrac{2\pi t}{T}\right)dt=\dfrac{1}{2}A^2T $$

Why does the rect function disappear?

enter image description here

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Please change your image. It is very small and it is impossible to understand what does it mean. $\endgroup$
    – SergV
    Commented Oct 1, 2015 at 11:07

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

It is implicit in the integral. You compute it just from $-0.5T$ to $+0.5T$, where the $\mbox{rect}$ is constant and equal to 1.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.