If an All Pass system has poles at $0.8\exp\left(-j \dfrac{\pi}{4}\right)$ and $0.8\exp\left(j \dfrac{\pi}{4}\right)$, There would be $2\pi$ jumps in the phase (principal value) at angular frequency $\omega= \dfrac{\pi}{4}$ and $\omega= \dfrac{7\pi}{4}$, but why would there be $2\pi$ jumps also at $\omega= \dfrac{3\pi}{4}$ and $\omega= \dfrac{5\pi}{4}$ (Figure 5.24 in Oppenheim Schafer and Buck "Discrete Time Signal Processing 2nd Edition)?
I understand that in all pass systems with real coefficient frequency response, a pole at $z= z_1$ would mean a pole at $z=z_1^*$ and zeros at $z=\dfrac{1}{z_1^*}$, $z= \dfrac{1}{z_1}$. With this reasoning a pole at $0.8\exp\left(-j \dfrac{\pi}{4}\right)$ would mean zeros at $1.25\exp\left(j \dfrac{\pi}{4}\right)$ and $1.25\exp\left(-j \dfrac{\pi}{4}\right)$. But this still does not explain the $2\pi$ jumps in phase at $\dfrac{3\pi}{4}$ and $\dfrac{3\pi}{4}$.
Please Help. Thank you very much in advance.