Installment #3: Bilinear Transform.
recall the analog LPF transfer function is
$$ H_\text{A}(s) = \frac{\omega_0^2}{s^2 + \frac{\omega_0}{Q}s + \omega_0^2} $$
(note the $_\text{A}$ subscript to keep confusion at a minimum.) initially, the bilinear transform says to do this:
$$ z = e^{sT} = \frac{e^{sT/2}}{e^{-sT/2}} \approx \frac{1+sT/2}{1-sT/2}$$
solving for $s$
$$ s = \frac{1}{T} \log(z) \approx \frac{2}{T}\frac{z-1}{z+1} $$
$$ H(z) \triangleq H_\text{A}(s) \Bigg|_{s=\frac{2}{T}\frac{z-1}{z+1}} = H_\text{A}\left(\frac{2}{T}\frac{z-1}{z+1} \right) $$
but, upon examination, we have learned of this consequence called "frequency warping" and so we fudge this a little so that the resonant frequency $\omega_0$ is "pre-warped" and compensated to put it exactly where we were expecting. the resulting fudge factor is:
$$ \omega_0 \leftarrow \frac{2}{T} \tan\left(\frac{\omega_0 T}{2} \right) $$
this results in the following net substitution:
$$ H(z) \triangleq H_\text{A}(s) \Bigg|_{s=\frac{\omega_0}{\tan(\omega_0 T/2 )}\frac{z-1}{z+1}} = H_\text{A}\left( \frac{\omega_0}{\tan(\omega_0 T/2 )}\frac{z-1}{z+1} \right) $$
this is essentially what is done in the Audio EQ Cookbook. for the LPF, this results in the following z-plane transfer function
$$ H(z) = \frac{1-\cos(\omega_0 T)}{2(1+\alpha)} \frac{z^2 + 2z + 1}{z^2 - 2 \frac{\cos(\omega_0 T)}{1+\alpha} z + \frac{1-\alpha}{1+\alpha}} $$
where $\alpha \triangleq \frac{\sin(\omega_0 T)}{2Q}$.
this also just comes from the Cookbook.
so here, there are two z-plane zeros at $z=-1$ (we expect this with bilinear transform of a LPF) and the z-plane poles (assuming that they're complex conjugate) are at:
$$ \begin{align}
z_\text{p} & = \frac{\cos(\omega_0 T)}{1+\alpha} \pm j \sqrt{\frac{1-\alpha}{1+\alpha} - \left( \frac{\cos(\omega_0 T)}{1+\alpha} \right)^2} \\
& = \frac{2Q}{2Q + \sin(\omega_0 T)}\left(\cos(\omega_0 T) \pm j \sin(\omega_0 T) \sqrt{1-\frac{1}{4 Q^2}} \right) \\
\end{align} $$
and
$$ |z_\text{p}| = \sqrt{\frac{1-\alpha}{1+\alpha}} = \sqrt{\frac{2Q - \sin(\omega_0 T)}{2Q + \sin(\omega_0 T)}} $$
$$ \arg\{z_\text{p} \} = \pm \arctan\left(\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{4 Q^2}} \tan(\omega_0 T) \right) $$
this is different from the Impulse Invariant case, but if $\omega_0 \ll \frac{1}{T}$, then i think they get to be about the same.