I had an exam one of these days and one of the questions was:
"Knowing that an auto-correlation estimator of a sinal x[n] could be defined by:
$$ R_{xx}[k] = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{+\infty}h[n].x[n+k] , k=0,1,...,n-1 $$ and that the non-periodic convolution: $$ y[n]=x[n]*h[n] = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{+\infty}h[k].x[n-k] $$ show how to calculate the autocorrelation with a convolution operation"
And here is my reasoning:
let's say that: $$ h[n] = x[-n] $$ Therefore, we would have some $y[n]$ for the following convolution: $$ y[n] = x[n]*h[n]=x[n]*x[-n] = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{+\infty}x[k].x[k-n] $$ So it would be nice to invert the signal $y[n]$, finding then a $y[-n]$. However, we will get the same result as before since convolution is a commutative operation: $$ y[-n]=x[-n]*h[-n]=x[-n]*x[n]=x[n]*x[-n]=\sum_{k=-\infty}^{+\infty}x[-k].x[-k+n] $$ Therefore, $R_{xx}[n]=y[n]=y[-n]$, since the convolution sum is symmetric with respect to zero.
Question:
Is my reasoning correct by formal mathematics? The professor gave me a zero in this answer because he says that my assumption $R_{xx}[n]=y[n]=y[-n]$ is wrong because the correct calculation of the autocorrelation has a complex conjugate in one of the terms (so it might not be symmetric with respect to zero). I agree with it even though he has not placed this formalism in the autocorrelation definition. So, following the exam's definitions, is my reasoning correct?
Also, can I say that this will always be true whenever the signal is purely real? And by consequence of the question above: can some of these be demonstrated for complex signals?