I wonder if the following acoustic system is i) considered to be linear time-invariant, and ii) if it is fully described by it's frequency response?
A speaker produces waves at the input location of a duct system with a branch and the output is measured after the branch point. The anechoic terminations completely absorb the sound waves, and it is assumed that only 1D low frequency waves exist.
So the system, when subject to the input $$ x(t) = e^{j \omega t}, \quad t \ge 0 $$
experiences the output $$ y(t) = \left\{ \begin{array}{l l} 0 & \quad 0 \le t < t_0 \\ A e^{j \omega t} & \quad \text{$t_0 \le t<t_1$}\\ A e^{j \omega t} + B e^{j \omega t}& \quad \text{$t \ge t_1$} \end{array} \right., $$
where A and B are complex constants depending on the duct geometry, and $t_1$is the delay time due to the side branch geometry.
Yes the system itself is not changing with time, however due to the finite speed of sound there is a transient period before the reflection from a side branch has occurred.
The frequency response at $\omega$ (a complex number capturing only magnitude and phase relationship between input and output) would be related to the final part of the piecewise defined output (steady state part) and offer no information about the time $t_1$. So, for example, a second system which had a longer side branch may have the same frequency response yet a different value of $t_1$. Therefore my argument would be that the FR is inadequate to characterise the transient behaviour of the system. Is this correct?