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I posted this question at Math Stack Exchange a few weeks ago without any luck. It occurred to me I might have more luck by posting it here. The basic question is whether there exists a known relationship between the period of a signal (i.e. the inverse of the frequency) and its corresponding power, such as that depicted in the graph in the linked post.

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  • $\begingroup$ If it isn't getting any response over there, you can flag it to be moved here. If you are going to leave it in both places, at least paste the text of it over here so people don't have to follow the link. $\endgroup$ – jonsca Sep 27 '13 at 5:56
  • $\begingroup$ sorry to be picky, but looking at your graph 'constant' is not the right description. :) $\endgroup$ – geometrikal Sep 28 '13 at 13:29
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There is no universal relationship between power and period length. These are two unrelated, yet completely independent, concepts (see amplitude vs. frequency).

But what your plot might be referring to is a digital CMOS circuit. Such a circuit consumes a certain amount of energy per clock cycle. Hence for this kind of device, power consumption is (approximately) proportional to clock frequency.

So it depends on the origin of the data. There is no universal relation, but there might be one for specific situations.

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