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Oct 9, 2022 at 21:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackSignals/status/1579215137457999872
Oct 9, 2022 at 14:55 vote accept XYZT
S Oct 7, 2022 at 12:31 history edited lennon310 CC BY-SA 4.0
small typo in title
S Oct 7, 2022 at 12:31 history suggested Gab CC BY-SA 4.0
small typo in title
Oct 7, 2022 at 9:22 answer added Matt L. timeline score: 5
Oct 7, 2022 at 7:32 review Suggested edits
S Oct 7, 2022 at 12:31
Oct 6, 2022 at 22:43 comment added Ash Your analysis agrees with this blog post.
Oct 6, 2022 at 22:24 comment added XYZT Hmm, but it does not look like a convolution - which I thought would be the case if it was correct.
Oct 6, 2022 at 22:11 comment added Ash Your last equation is correct. The response for an impulse at a delay of $\tau'$ is only valid for the impulse response defined at that time delay (i.e. $h(\tau, t-\tau')$). A response $h(\tau, t)$ would only be realized by an impulse occuring at $\delta(t)$, not $\delta(t-\tau')$. Variable overload, adding prime for input delay
Oct 6, 2022 at 22:08 history edited XYZT CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 6, 2022 at 22:01 history edited XYZT CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 6, 2022 at 21:56 comment added XYZT Yes, that's what I used to compute the integral. I edited my question to show this is what I am doing.
Oct 6, 2022 at 21:55 history edited XYZT CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 6, 2022 at 21:55 comment added Ash If $x(t)=\delta(t-t_0)$, then $x(t-\tau) = \delta(t-\tau-t_0)$.
Oct 6, 2022 at 21:00 history edited XYZT CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 6, 2022 at 20:46 history asked XYZT CC BY-SA 4.0