Timeline for does ifft of higher order equal upsampling signal
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
10 events
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| Mar 13, 2021 at 12:44 | comment | added | Dan Boschen | @vikassajanani Thank you! They are from a course I teach that is coming up online if you are interested (lots more like this): ieeeboston.org/event/digital-signal-processing-webinar that focuses on providing a unique intuitive understanding of DSP with but beyond the math. | |
| Mar 13, 2021 at 12:42 | comment | added | vikas sajanani | yes, I see it now, it just became very clear, thanks for the amazing explanation. These slides are wonderful resources. | |
| Mar 13, 2021 at 12:41 | comment | added | Dan Boschen | @vikassajanani do you see how this answers that or is that part still not clear? See how in the last two slides comparing the DTFT to the DFT where the DTFT is the DFT with infinite zeros appended. So as you append zeros, you increase the number of samples in frequency until it ultimately becomes continuous. So if zero padding creates the interpolated spectrum, reversing that interpolated spectrum gives you back the original (zero-padded) signal. | |
| Mar 13, 2021 at 12:40 | vote | accept | vikas sajanani | ||
| Mar 13, 2021 at 12:35 | comment | added | vikas sajanani | Thank you , this helps immensely, was really looking for the part "The inverse FFT should then be the original signal with zeros appended to the end." I was only wanting to find out why does it mathematically equal appending zeros to original signal after bigger than length ifft. | |
| Mar 13, 2021 at 11:33 | history | edited | Dan Boschen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Mar 13, 2021 at 11:24 | history | edited | Dan Boschen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Mar 13, 2021 at 11:11 | history | edited | Dan Boschen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Mar 13, 2021 at 11:00 | history | edited | Dan Boschen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Mar 13, 2021 at 10:53 | history | answered | Dan Boschen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |