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Jan 31, 2018 at 18:00 vote accept CommunityBot
Jan 31, 2018 at 17:56 comment added Tendero @Jason I've added some useful information to the answer.
Jan 31, 2018 at 17:56 history edited Tendero CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 31, 2018 at 17:45 comment added Tendero @Jason Indeed, and in fact $\frac{\sin(\pi n)}{\pi n} = \delta(n)$. Its transform is $$\sum_{k=-\infty}^{+\infty}\left(u(\Omega+\pi)-u(\Omega-\pi)\right)\star \delta(\Omega-2k\pi)$$ If you watch closely, that is the same as writing $1 \ \forall \Omega$, which corresponds to the DTFT of the delta. Thus the solution given in the answer is correct.
Jan 31, 2018 at 17:39 comment added user33199 I don't think so... You know, $sin(\pi n) = 0$ for all $n$ since we are in natural numbers...
Jan 31, 2018 at 17:30 history answered Tendero CC BY-SA 3.0